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	<title>Comments for Densytics</title>
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	<link>http://densytics.com</link>
	<description>Physics without Newtonian branding</description>
	<lastBuildDate>Sun, 29 Jan 2012 22:16:26 +0000</lastBuildDate>
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		<title>Comment on Time in physics by Paul Rose</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2011/04/11/time-in-physics/#comment-1866</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Paul Rose]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sun, 29 Jan 2012 22:16:26 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://science1.wordpress.com/?p=2907#comment-1866</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Dear Sirs
What is time?
Is it uniform in the Universe, Is it kinematical. geodesic  or all of this three, what mathematical device can obtain to explain time?
We it is my conviction that we can&#039;t explain time philosophically, can we explain through differential equations, vector, tensor calculus  or other forms of mathematical devices? 
Yet to be discovered?
Do we in fact need to create a new rational approach and then equalize it in a new mathematical device in order to explain time?
Time according to Einstein is geodesic in gravitation, kinematical in motion, but not very metaphysical, but isn&#039;t it uniform in orbit as the speed of light is uniform in the gravitational field?
Time is doubtless uniform, kinematical and perhaps geodesical, the great challenge for astrophysics is as i propose to create a formal new mathematical device that formalizes al of this three fundamental devices of times in one single fundamental device to explain time.-Professor Doctor Paulo Crawford works-available in his page at the Lisbon faculty of sciences-www.fc.ul.pt, are strongly recommended, available in www.google.pt-&quot;pesquisar&quot; or &quot;search&quot;-translated-&quot;Paulo Crawford&quot;
This are the questions i formalize.
P. Rose / M. Lapa]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Dear Sirs<br />
What is time?<br />
Is it uniform in the Universe, Is it kinematical. geodesic  or all of this three, what mathematical device can obtain to explain time?<br />
We it is my conviction that we can&#8217;t explain time philosophically, can we explain through differential equations, vector, tensor calculus  or other forms of mathematical devices?<br />
Yet to be discovered?<br />
Do we in fact need to create a new rational approach and then equalize it in a new mathematical device in order to explain time?<br />
Time according to Einstein is geodesic in gravitation, kinematical in motion, but not very metaphysical, but isn&#8217;t it uniform in orbit as the speed of light is uniform in the gravitational field?<br />
Time is doubtless uniform, kinematical and perhaps geodesical, the great challenge for astrophysics is as i propose to create a formal new mathematical device that formalizes al of this three fundamental devices of times in one single fundamental device to explain time.-Professor Doctor Paulo Crawford works-available in his page at the Lisbon faculty of sciences-www.fc.ul.pt, are strongly recommended, available in <a href="http://www.google.pt-" rel="nofollow">http://www.google.pt-</a>&#8220;pesquisar&#8221; or &#8220;search&#8221;-translated-&#8221;Paulo Crawford&#8221;<br />
This are the questions i formalize.<br />
P. Rose / M. Lapa</p>
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		<title>Comment on Data types of F=ma by zeynel</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2008/04/22/data-types-of-fma/#comment-1808</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[zeynel]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 12 Jan 2012 14:26:42 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://globalpioneering.com/wp02/data-types-of-fma/#comment-1808</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[If m is equivalent to M why are you cancelling m in both equations and not M and m? In any case, the definition of force in GMm/r2 says that force is the attraction between matter M and matter m. Now you eliminate m by algebra and associate with your elimination a false “physical” cause. After you eliminate m now force acts between matter M and nothing because m is not there anymore.

This is a good example of how physics is the art of casuistry. When you want it you read M and m as “matter” to say that force acts between two pieces of matter. When you need to eliminate m because you must according to the rules of algebra then you read m as “inertial mass” and M as “gravitiation mass”. And you conveniently forget that you first read them as matter.

Your second paragraph is not about orbits, it is another topic.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>If m is equivalent to M why are you cancelling m in both equations and not M and m? In any case, the definition of force in GMm/r2 says that force is the attraction between matter M and matter m. Now you eliminate m by algebra and associate with your elimination a false “physical” cause. After you eliminate m now force acts between matter M and nothing because m is not there anymore.</p>
<p>This is a good example of how physics is the art of casuistry. When you want it you read M and m as “matter” to say that force acts between two pieces of matter. When you need to eliminate m because you must according to the rules of algebra then you read m as “inertial mass” and M as “gravitiation mass”. And you conveniently forget that you first read them as matter.</p>
<p>Your second paragraph is not about orbits, it is another topic.</p>
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		<title>Comment on Data types of F=ma by Isaac Newton</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2008/04/22/data-types-of-fma/#comment-1715</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Isaac Newton]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 31 Dec 2011 15:24:48 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://globalpioneering.com/wp02/data-types-of-fma/#comment-1715</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[It is true that mass of the earth cancels out of the equation for the orbital motion. The reason for this is the equivalence of inertial mass (mass in the equation F=ma) to gravitational mass, i.e. mass which is the cause of gravity itself (M in F=GMm/r^2) 

But you can easily come up with a very simple system that none of the masses cancel out. For example a mass M1 which is free to move up and down attached to another mass M2 with a string (+a pulley) which is free to move in the horizontal direction. Assume there is no friction, then the acceleration (due to gravity) of this system is equal to a = M1*g/(M1+M2). This can be easily measured and the effect of each mass can be identified.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>It is true that mass of the earth cancels out of the equation for the orbital motion. The reason for this is the equivalence of inertial mass (mass in the equation F=ma) to gravitational mass, i.e. mass which is the cause of gravity itself (M in F=GMm/r^2) </p>
<p>But you can easily come up with a very simple system that none of the masses cancel out. For example a mass M1 which is free to move up and down attached to another mass M2 with a string (+a pulley) which is free to move in the horizontal direction. Assume there is no friction, then the acceleration (due to gravity) of this system is equal to a = M1*g/(M1+M2). This can be easily measured and the effect of each mass can be identified.</p>
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		<title>Comment on Don&#8217;t become a physicist! by zeynel</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2008/02/24/dont-become-a-physicist/#comment-1714</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[zeynel]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 31 Dec 2011 14:24:41 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://globalpioneering.com/wp02/dont-become-a-physicist/#comment-1714</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[l3mons: this is physics propaganda. Academic physicists do not create new technology; new technology is created despite physics. Physics today is concerned about discovering what was god doing before creation.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>l3mons: this is physics propaganda. Academic physicists do not create new technology; new technology is created despite physics. Physics today is concerned about discovering what was god doing before creation.</p>
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		<title>Comment on How to philosophize with a physics equation by martenvandijk</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2011/12/29/how-to-philosophize-with-a-physics-equation/#comment-1692</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[martenvandijk]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 29 Dec 2011 15:31:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://science1.wordpress.com/?p=3573#comment-1692</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Each equation is like a pair of scales, which must be kept well-balanced at all times, If blindfolded lady Justice can do it, why not any physicist?]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Each equation is like a pair of scales, which must be kept well-balanced at all times, If blindfolded lady Justice can do it, why not any physicist?</p>
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		<title>Comment on The real face of physics by zeynel</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2011/11/30/the-real-face-of-physics/#comment-1632</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[zeynel]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 13 Dec 2011 21:04:15 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://science1.wordpress.com/?p=3384#comment-1632</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[I found plenty of secondary sources stating that Einstein did not believe in instantaneous action at a distance and objected to Newton’s force on this ground. As far as a direct quote, I found &lt;a href=&quot;http://books.google.com/books?id=J-zv71syXJMC&amp;pg=PA247&amp;dq=einstein+force+instantaneous&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=z5jnTpunKsnv0gGx-t3zCQ&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=5&amp;ved=0CEgQ6AEwBDge#v=onepage&amp;q=einstein%20force%20instantaneous&amp;f=false&quot; rel=&quot;nofollow&quot;&gt;this in Einstein’s Collected Papers&lt;/a&gt;:
&lt;blockquote&gt;not only the assumption of an instantaneous spread of some effect, but also, more generally, any assumption of the spreading of an effect with a velocity greater than the velocity of light is incompatible with the theory of relativity.&lt;/blockquote&gt;
Is this acceptable?

The way I understand it Einstein rejected Newton’s definition of force because he believed that instantaneous action at a distance did not exist in nature and that nothing could move faster than light. Instantaneous action at a distance is occult and Einstein wanted to eliminate this occult quality from physics.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I found plenty of secondary sources stating that Einstein did not believe in instantaneous action at a distance and objected to Newton’s force on this ground. As far as a direct quote, I found <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=J-zv71syXJMC&amp;pg=PA247&amp;dq=einstein+force+instantaneous&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=z5jnTpunKsnv0gGx-t3zCQ&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=5&amp;ved=0CEgQ6AEwBDge#v=onepage&amp;q=einstein%20force%20instantaneous&amp;f=false" rel="nofollow">this in Einstein’s Collected Papers</a>:</p>
<blockquote><p>not only the assumption of an instantaneous spread of some effect, but also, more generally, any assumption of the spreading of an effect with a velocity greater than the velocity of light is incompatible with the theory of relativity.</p></blockquote>
<p>Is this acceptable?</p>
<p>The way I understand it Einstein rejected Newton’s definition of force because he believed that instantaneous action at a distance did not exist in nature and that nothing could move faster than light. Instantaneous action at a distance is occult and Einstein wanted to eliminate this occult quality from physics.</p>
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		<title>Comment on The real face of physics by netizen12</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2011/11/30/the-real-face-of-physics/#comment-1630</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[netizen12]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 13 Dec 2011 16:52:55 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://science1.wordpress.com/?p=3384#comment-1630</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[hello

can you please provide a source for this statement? &quot;Einstein correctly thought that Newton’s force was occult and wanted to remove force from physics&quot;

reading with interest,

Netizen12]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>hello</p>
<p>can you please provide a source for this statement? &#8220;Einstein correctly thought that Newton’s force was occult and wanted to remove force from physics&#8221;</p>
<p>reading with interest,</p>
<p>Netizen12</p>
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		<title>Comment on Open letter to academic physicists by Nature is rational &#124; How the world works</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2007/01/09/open-letter-to-academic-physicists/#comment-1616</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Nature is rational &#124; How the world works]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 08 Dec 2011 15:49:29 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://globalpioneering.com/wp02/?p=61#comment-1616</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[[...] cannot imagine any physicist to agree that nature is rational and that there are no true units in nature; that would be denying the sacred branded units of [...]]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>[...] cannot imagine any physicist to agree that nature is rational and that there are no true units in nature; that would be denying the sacred branded units of [...]</p>
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		<title>Comment on Newton&#8217;s Secret: Newton&#8217;s own discovery hidden in the Principia unravels the Newtonian world by zeynel</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2011/11/27/newtons-secret-newtons-own-discovery-hidden-in-the-principia-unravels-the-newtonian-world/#comment-1613</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[zeynel]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 06 Dec 2011 14:17:45 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://science1.wordpress.com/?p=3373#comment-1613</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Alejandro Rivero:

&lt;i&gt;Obfuscated???? It is the first chapters! Blame of you if you jump over first chapters of every book.&lt;/i&gt;
 
Questioning the first chapters of Euclid’s Elements led to non-Euclidean geometries. I don’t see your point

&lt;i&gt;My oppinion is that Newton hides it because he is not sure that he can assume that the variation of angular momentum in the proofs can be as small as one wants, and he needs such smallness to have a sensible infinitesimal calculus.&lt;/i&gt; 

Newton hides what? I am saying that Newton hides the fact that Kepler’s Rule is the definition of density. Where do you see any mention of infinitesimal calculus in Newton’s definition 1?

To use infinitesimal calculus to compute orbits is premature optimization; the same computations can be done by using average quantities because we are interested in showing that Newton’s occult force does not enter orbit calculations; we are not interested in computing precise orbits.

&lt;a href=&quot;http://books.google.com/books?id=gB2-Hqdx_LUC&amp;dq=principia&amp;q=momentum#v=snippet&amp;q=momentum&amp;f=false&quot; rel=&quot;nofollow&quot;&gt;Newton does not use the word “momentum” &lt;/a&gt;

What “proofs” are you talking about?

&lt;i&gt;Of course, without this assumtion, he had need a more powerful mathematical aparatus, beyond his reach: the Path Integral. Note how tha graphs in section II are amazingly similar to the ones in Feynmannish textbooks.&lt;/i&gt;

Why do you need “path integral” to work with the simple proportionality RRR::TT?

There are no graphs in definition 1 and Principia’s section II is a filler. In the Principia Newton makes orbital computation only in propositions III.4, III.8, and I.57-60. We are not interesting in anything else Newton dumpted in the Principia.

&lt;i&gt;Still, density transmits the wrong idea.&lt;/i&gt; 

Why?

&lt;i&gt;Consider angular momentum, and remember that h is the smallest quantity of angular momentum, but then it is also the smallest are you can sweep in a dt, because such area is one half of x cross p times dt.&lt;/i&gt;

Working with calculus notation to describe orbits adds nothing to our understanding of orbits; average values are good enough in this case.

&lt;i&gt;If you want understand Kepler, you need to read about his Wine Barrels.&lt;/i&gt;

Kepler discovered Kepler’s Rule; in orbits we are dealing with Kepler’s Rule and I understand Kepler’s Rule. If you want to understand orbits, understand Kepler’s Rule]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Alejandro Rivero:</p>
<p><i>Obfuscated???? It is the first chapters! Blame of you if you jump over first chapters of every book.</i></p>
<p>Questioning the first chapters of Euclid’s Elements led to non-Euclidean geometries. I don’t see your point</p>
<p><i>My oppinion is that Newton hides it because he is not sure that he can assume that the variation of angular momentum in the proofs can be as small as one wants, and he needs such smallness to have a sensible infinitesimal calculus.</i> </p>
<p>Newton hides what? I am saying that Newton hides the fact that Kepler’s Rule is the definition of density. Where do you see any mention of infinitesimal calculus in Newton’s definition 1?</p>
<p>To use infinitesimal calculus to compute orbits is premature optimization; the same computations can be done by using average quantities because we are interested in showing that Newton’s occult force does not enter orbit calculations; we are not interested in computing precise orbits.</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=gB2-Hqdx_LUC&amp;dq=principia&amp;q=momentum#v=snippet&amp;q=momentum&amp;f=false" rel="nofollow">Newton does not use the word “momentum” </a></p>
<p>What “proofs” are you talking about?</p>
<p><i>Of course, without this assumtion, he had need a more powerful mathematical aparatus, beyond his reach: the Path Integral. Note how tha graphs in section II are amazingly similar to the ones in Feynmannish textbooks.</i></p>
<p>Why do you need “path integral” to work with the simple proportionality RRR::TT?</p>
<p>There are no graphs in definition 1 and Principia’s section II is a filler. In the Principia Newton makes orbital computation only in propositions III.4, III.8, and I.57-60. We are not interesting in anything else Newton dumpted in the Principia.</p>
<p><i>Still, density transmits the wrong idea.</i> </p>
<p>Why?</p>
<p><i>Consider angular momentum, and remember that h is the smallest quantity of angular momentum, but then it is also the smallest are you can sweep in a dt, because such area is one half of x cross p times dt.</i></p>
<p>Working with calculus notation to describe orbits adds nothing to our understanding of orbits; average values are good enough in this case.</p>
<p><i>If you want understand Kepler, you need to read about his Wine Barrels.</i></p>
<p>Kepler discovered Kepler’s Rule; in orbits we are dealing with Kepler’s Rule and I understand Kepler’s Rule. If you want to understand orbits, understand Kepler’s Rule</p>
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		<title>Comment on Newton&#8217;s Secret: Newton&#8217;s own discovery hidden in the Principia unravels the Newtonian world by Alejandro Rivero</title>
		<link>http://densytics.com/2011/11/27/newtons-secret-newtons-own-discovery-hidden-in-the-principia-unravels-the-newtonian-world/#comment-1608</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Alejandro Rivero]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sun, 04 Dec 2011 21:43:31 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://science1.wordpress.com/?p=3373#comment-1608</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Obfuscated???? It is the first chapters! Blame of you if you jump over first chapters of every book. Now, it is true that you should use an annotated version of the principia. The corrections and variations of different versions of section II (and I), plus comparision with previous drafts, are needed in order to understand what is going on.

My oppinion is that Newton hides it because he is not sure that he can assume that the variation of angular momentum in the proofs can be as small as one wants, and he needs such smallness to have a sensible infinitesimal calculus. Of course, without this assumtion, he had need a more powerful mathematical aparatus, beyond his reach: the Path Integral. Note how tha graphs in section II are amazingly similar to the ones in Feynmannish textbooks.

Still, density transmits the wrong idea. Consider angular momentum, and remember that h is the smallest quantity of angular momentum, but then it is also the smallest are you can sweep in a dt, because such area is one half of x cross p times dt.

If you want understand Kepler, you need to read about his Wine Barrels.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Obfuscated???? It is the first chapters! Blame of you if you jump over first chapters of every book. Now, it is true that you should use an annotated version of the principia. The corrections and variations of different versions of section II (and I), plus comparision with previous drafts, are needed in order to understand what is going on.</p>
<p>My oppinion is that Newton hides it because he is not sure that he can assume that the variation of angular momentum in the proofs can be as small as one wants, and he needs such smallness to have a sensible infinitesimal calculus. Of course, without this assumtion, he had need a more powerful mathematical aparatus, beyond his reach: the Path Integral. Note how tha graphs in section II are amazingly similar to the ones in Feynmannish textbooks.</p>
<p>Still, density transmits the wrong idea. Consider angular momentum, and remember that h is the smallest quantity of angular momentum, but then it is also the smallest are you can sweep in a dt, because such area is one half of x cross p times dt.</p>
<p>If you want understand Kepler, you need to read about his Wine Barrels.</p>
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